Mercnbeth -> RE: "Cars burnt, police hurt in French election violence" (5/9/2007 10:06:00 AM)
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quote:
in that election and in none since have I seen any party manifesto whereby a mandate was obtained for the wrecking of British society in the thorough way which has obtained. In an effort gain clarity, not accuse, I have a question regarding this statement. A "mandate" in this case is being defined as a person/party winning a democratic election and, as a result, implementing the change that gained them the democratic plurality generating the victory. As a member of the society, obviously disagreeing with the implemented change, it is not only acceptable but justified to riot? As a side note - this is 2007 not 1979. This is France not England. This is Mr. Sarkozy not Ms. Thatcher. Is the comparison, prior to any change in policy, necessary to rationalize the position to "understand" the riots? Do the riots indicate an acceptance by the rioters that they are a fringe minority who can not ever expect to implement their political agenda in a democratic society? If not, what is their goal? quote:
This makes governmental violence and vandalism as criminally unacceptable as any public riot, lacking said mandate - or it makes rioting as acceptable as the actions of government in that regard. "Governmental violence and vandalism"; can you detail this action by the government? Is it vandalism and violence to defend property against rioters and arrest them or do you have an example of something else?
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