iam4her
Posts: 11
Joined: 9/4/2005 Status: offline
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I jump in quite late in this dialoge. I am the mentioned Away4Awhile´s slave I have read through the posting and do thank everybody that have participated. Your postings have encouraged me to dive futher into this link between modern bdsm and the anchient hierarchies. Not saying that it was exactly the same thousands of years ago but there is a obvious connection, a link. Archer; i became quite interested in your quote from the bible text. So i pulled down the dusty bible from my bookshelf and went to that chapter. Now, here comes the interesting, being a swede, of course its a swedish version of the bible that i have. The english translation you mentioned "I love my master," is different from the swedish "Jag har min herre" ,this swedish sentence translated back into english means "I have my Master" Refering to me translating back into english. both Swedish and English are Anglo-English languages, this sentence is straight forward same structure and the word "har-have" is perhaps the second word swedes learn in their first english lesson, We use the same gender for the english word "has" so you can even see the obious similarites between our languages "has-har" Even the words "Master - Herre" does not necessararly mean the same thing in our two languages, even here it become interesting how the text orginally is supposed to be... Now, of course this makes me wonder how this sentence really was in its orginal language...?, Is it orginally written in Hebrian ? So it is obvious that the translators colours the text with their own opinion. Text that will be verified and respected by a numbers of people. A translator, a journalist, a documentary director , or a photographer are all under the same obligation of ethics to be as neutral as possible, as correct as possible. So what is accepted or not from an ethicly point of view ? If I see a link between modern bdsm and for instant old egypt, and state it as a documentary maker or a journalist in a film or in an article, what is accepted or not ? I mean, obvioulsy one of the translators of the bible must have more or less raped the orginal text as the two words "love-have" means two completly different things. If we would be incredible far-fetched you could most likely come up with an interpretation that "love-have" means the same thing, but if any interpration of words should be accpeted, why even discussing anything...
< Message edited by iam4her -- 4/12/2008 6:15:57 AM >
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