TNDommeK
Posts: 7153
Joined: 3/13/2010 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: UllrsIshtar I don't run a casino, so I have no motive to advocate for one, other than the fact that my morality states that people have the right to their own choices, even if those choices are to their own detriment. I've seen you state that it's not the same as other kinks, but what I haven't seen is any single coherent argument to back up that claim other than 'findommes gain X from engaging in said kink' which is easily disproven as a valid argument, because all sorts of dominant gain all sorts of things from all sorts of kinks. If I have somebody clean my house, I gain. If I have somebody provide oral sex to me while not letting them get off, I gain. If I have somebody massage me without giving a massage in return, I gain. If I have somebody suffer to the point of crying -and my subsequent enjoyment, I gain. If I have somebody buy me a pair of shoes, I gain. The thing is, in all those situations, the 'somebody' gains too. They gain having their personal fantasies/kinks/arousal/desires met. After all, I don't do any of that stuff with people who don't have fantasies/kinks/arousal/desires to provide me with exactly those types of gains. You still haven't made any coherent point to explain why it's a valid kink to 'exploit' somebody by ordering them to give me a massage, but not a valid kink to 'exploit' somebody by ordering them to buy me a pair of shoes. My question lies above with the bolded. And it could have just been a statement used on a whim but, why does it have to be detriment? If the sub enjoys financial control and he isn't headed for financial ruin, how is it detriment?
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Goddess of Duck Lips and Luxurious Hair The working Fin Domme Professional con artist, swindler, trixster, extortionist Our snark-nado needs more cowbell
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